Public Groupactive 3 weeks, 4 days ago
Could somebody explain their reasoning in this question? All online sources suggest E. Myofascial pain but I’d like to know how you would reach this conclusion.
The most likely diagnosis for a patient with an interincisal opening of 30mm before feeling pain and a maximum opening of 44mm with pain is
A. internal derangement of the TMJ with reduction.
B. internal derangement of the TMJ without reduction.
C. trismus of the masticatory muscles.
D. subluxation of the TMJ.
E. myofascial pain.